Sorry for not getting back to you for so long, hope the exam went well....
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Originally Posted by siko
Also, be careful with this type of logic, sometimes these types of statements can be incomplete and thus can be bend to make any conclusion... i.e.
1) Humans have legs
2) Chickens have legs
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Therefore, humans are chickens... ?
Logic is not bullet-proof… without sufficient proper data/axioms, logical conclusions can be incomplete/false. |
Refer to my previous point, where I stated that in order for something to be proved through logic,
1) premises must be true, and
2) conclusion must follow premises.
In your above example, 2 (conclusion must follow premises) is not the case - a logical conclusion would be 'Thus, both chickens and humans have legs'. In order for your stated conclusion to follow the premises, a third premise would have to be added, along the lines of
3) If two creatures share the same body part, then they are the same creature
But that premise is false, and thus 1 ('premises must be true') is not followed. Trickier than you think
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The whole idea that math is not a science is very debatable.... therefore if math were to be considered as a science, the statement that proofs cannot come from science is false.
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Maths and science, from a philosophical perspective, are two different entities - one is based on mathematical logic while the other, fundamentally, on emperical (ie, 'subjective') observation.
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But that's beside my point with Kant. I am not an expert in logic, but I’m pretty sure you cannot postulate a proof about the existence of God… besides it’ll never make it into a theorem, since you need to “take it on faith.” |
This is stretching it back many years but I think I remember Kant's argument - and while it was logically sound (ie, it was valid; the conclusions followed the premises) the premises themselves were not
necessarily true, and thus his argument in its entirety can never be prooved thus.
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I forget Kant proof about God, but as an example... I remember reading once about the “Cosmological argument”, a proof based on the concept of causality that supposedly proves the existence of God… and it was logical until they referred to God as the “first cause”, why? Why all of a sudden do you have a cause that is not the effect of something previous?! Just because you can’t have infinity (that is the postulation)?? Says who, I think that's an invalid assumption?! I just don’t buy that! Sure I can buy that something created the universe, but what created the thing that created the universe… and what created the one thing before that? Etc.
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You are exactly right - although I wouldn't agree on your choice of word with 'invalid assumption' ('unfounded' would be more appropriate) - as I just said then, the problem with these arguments, such as the Cosmological and I think Teleological is that they are formed on premises which can never be proved - through science, logic, mathematics or otherwise. When attacking that argument in a test (back in the day) I think I remember stating something alongs the lines that the 'Big Bang' could just as easily replace 'God' as the first cause in the argument.
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To me, things that cannot be proven mathematically must be proven empirically… especially when dealing with subjects like God.
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Again, careful with your use of the concept 'proof', but I understand what you're saying, and I agree

Just on that, I think there's a common consensus of these terms amongst the philosophical community
Proofs - when dealing with pure logic or mathematics
Evidence - when dealing with science, and
Reasons - when dealing with religious matters
Not sure if I agree entirely with it, but I think it's OK
